Why is the x86 undefined instruction called ud2? Why 2?

(devblogs.microsoft.com)

28 points | by ibobev 3 hours ago

4 comments

  • qbane 10 minutes ago
    It's like why the first (hard) drive letter is C.
    • cyanydeez 8 minutes ago
      A: drive is 3.5; B: drive is 5.25; C: drive is hard disk
      • compiler-guy 1 minute ago
        Even further back into time, before 3.5" disks, both A: and B: were 5.25" disks. And, although my memory is hazy, 3.5's were commonly slotted into B: at first, because no one had 3.5" boot disks until the drives became somewhat common.
      • alightsoul 5 minutes ago
        Yeah it's a relic from when computers booted off floppy and hard disks were rare and expensive
  • 349ru3h4f03 41 minutes ago
    Nowadays UD0 UD1 UD2 are in the SDM and APM.

    We also got UDB (D6), the one-byte variant that arrived with x86-64 for 64-bit mode.

    And we have always had UDW (FF FF), aka group #5 (1st FF) with a modrm byte of mod=11b r/m=111b (/7) reg=111b (2nd FF) -- that one matters for memory with all bits set to 1, or for buses terminated to all 1 when no device claims an access.

  • dataflow 22 minutes ago
    Is this just his speculation? Or is there evidence for it?
  • Neywiny 57 minutes ago
    I'm not much of an x86 person but on other architectures you can raise software interrupts/exceptions. Does x86 not have this or did those facilities not cover enough use cases?
    • js8 38 minutes ago
      It's basically a convention. The alternative is to raise interrupts of course, but that might be application specific, or use other invalid instructions than the designated one, but they might work differently on other processor types.
    • 349ru3h4f03 41 minutes ago
      x86 has...

      INT Ib INT1 INT3 INTO BOUND